Question1: What is the CORRECT definition of service management?
Question2: What should a service design package (SDP) be produced for?
1. A standard change
2. A minor change to a service
3. Removal of a service
4. A major change to a service
Question3: Which one of the following is a correct definition of a supplier category?
Question4: Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
Question5: Which types of communication would the functions within service operation use?
1. Communication between data centre shifts
2. Communication related to changes
3. Performance reporting
4. Routine operational communication
Question6: Which of the following are sources of best practice?
1. Academic research
2. Internal experience
3. Industry practices
Question7: Which statement about Service Asset and Configuration Management (SACM) is FALSE?
Question8: What type of change is pre-authorized, low risk, relatively common, and follows a procedure or work
instruction?
Question9: Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process?
Question10: Which problem management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and management
information can be obtained?
Question11: In the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners". Products refers to:
Question12: Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?
Question13: What is defined as the ability of a service, component or configuration item (CI) to perform its agreed
function when required?
Question14: Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?
Question15: Which of the following models would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
Question16: Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis?
Question17: A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
Question18: IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on:
(1) Design of the service technology
(2) Business continuity strategy
(3) Business Impact Analysis
(4) Risk assessment
Question19: What would be the next step in the continual service improvement (CSI) model after?
1. What is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6. ?
Question20: Which of the following is one of the primary objectives of Service Strategy?
Question21: Which of the following is commonly found in a contract underpinning an IT service?Financial arrangements
related to the contract Description of the goods or service provided Responsibilities and dependencies for
both parties
Question22: What BEST defines IT service management?
Question23: Which of the following correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact?
Question24: What is used to control a process?
Question25: The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
Question26: A known IT service stops performing during normal business hours, then the user of the IT service calls
the service desk.
What should the service desk open?
Question27: When should a known error be raised?
Question28: Which statement BEST describes the value of the service transition stage to the business?
Question29: Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments and
organizational strategies?
Question30: Which formal agreement minimizes the risk of disputes that can occur between an IT service provider and
an external supplier?
Question31: Which process monitors and improves the performance of the service transition stage of the service
lifecycle?
Question32: Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function
Question33: In which of the following areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance?
1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors
2. Integrating ITIL with other operating models
Question34: Which is a responsibility of a customer within the service level management process?
Question35: Which of the following are managed by facilities management?
1. Hardware within a data centre or computer room
2. Applications
3. Power and cooling equipment
4. Recovery sites
Question36: Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
Question37: Which of the following are CORRECT Service Design Aspects?
1. Service Solutions for new or changed services
2. Management policies and guidelines
3. Business requirements technology and management architectures
4. Process requirements technology and management architectures
Question38: What is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?
Question39: Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?
Question40: Which is the CORRECT list of the three levels of a multi-level service level agreement (SLA)?
Question41: Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?
Question42: Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit: The Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) of a
service can be minimized if all aspects of the service, the processes and the technology are considered
during development?
Question43: What is the BEST description of a change proposal?
Question44: Which is NOT a structure of service desk that is described in the ITIL service operation guidance?
Question45: What processes represent the scope of financial management for IT services?
Question46: Which is NOT an objective of the change management process?
Question47: Which statement BEST describes the purpose of release and deployment management?
Question48: What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a
set of items that are related to each other?
Question49: Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?
Question50: Which of the following BEST describes technical management?
Question51: Which model delivers a view of the services, assets and infrastructure?
Question52: What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?
Question53: Which of these should a change model include?
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change
2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures
Question54: Which term describes if a service is fit for use?
Question55: What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as?
Question56: Which of the following is the best definition of IT service management?
Question57: Which of the following identifies the purpose of design coordination?
Question58: Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data centre?
Question59: Which of the following statements about service asset and configuration management is/are CORRECT?
1. A configuration item (CI) can exits as part of any numbers other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert.
Question60: Which process lists "Understanding patterns of business activity" as a major role?
Question61: Which one of the following is it the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?
Question62: Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management?
Question63: Which process is responsible for providing the rights to use an IT service?
Question64: Identify the input to the Problem Management process.
Question65: In which of the following situations should a Problem Record be created?
Question66: Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
Question67: The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service lifecycle?
Question68: The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?
Question69: What is the primary focus of business capacity management?
Question70: Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?
1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer
2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet
Question71: Undertaking a gap analysis is a key activity within which part of the Deming Cycle for improving services
and service management processes?
Question72: Which is NOT a sub-process of capacity management?
Question73: Which of the following is service transition planning and support NOT responsible for?
Question74: Which of the following statements about standard changes are CORRECT?
1. The approach is pre-authorized
2. The risk is usually low and well understood
3. Details of the change will be recorded
4. Some standard changes will be triggered by the request fulfilment process
Question75: Gathering data, monitoring performance and assessing metrics in order to facilitate service improvements
are all activities associated with which part of the service lifecycle?
Question76: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
(1) The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service
Operation
(2) All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services
Question77: Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
Question78: Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?
Question79: Which of the following processes contributes MOST to quantifying the financial value of IT services to the
business?
Question80: Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
Question81: A process owner is responsible for which of the following?
1. Defining the process strategy
2. Assisting with process design
3. Improving the process
4. Performing all activities involved in a process
Question82: Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?
Question83: Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by the phrase
'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles
defined in the vision'?
Question84: When tan a known error record tie raised?
(1) At any time when it would be useful to do so
(2) After a workaround has been found
Question85: Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the
service lifecycle?
Question86: What is the objective of Access Management?
Question87: Which statement about stakeholders is TRUE?
Question88: The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are these four Ps?
Question89: Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term service management?
Question90: Which role is accountable for the operational management of a process?
Question91: Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
Question92: Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge?
Question93: Which are the elements of process control?
Question94: Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow
2. Measurement and reporting
3. Release and deployment
4. Process design
Question95: Consider the following list:
1. Change authority
2. Change manager
3. Change advisory board (CAB)
Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?
Question96: Which statement about metrics is CORRECT?
Question97: Which one of the following is an objective of service transition?
Question98: Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
Question99: Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
Question100: What does the 'C' in 'RACI' refer to?
Question101: Which stage of the change management process deals with what should be done if the change is
unsuccessful?
Question102: What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?
Question103: Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as?
Question104: Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?
Question105: What is the BEST description of the CSI register?
Question106: Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun
Question107: The BEST processes to automate are those that are:
Question108: Which is the CORRECT activity to carry out the "How do we get there" phase of the Continual Service
improvement approach?
Question109: Which one of the following is an objective of service catalogue management?
Question110: Which of the following is the BEST description of a Business Case?
Question111: Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition?
Question112: Which of these recommendations is best practice for service level management?
1. Include legal terminology in service level agreements (SLAs)
2. It is NOT necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA
Question113: What MAIN factors are considered to assess the priority of an incident?
Question114: Which statement about services is CORRECT?
Question115: Which one of the following is the BEST description of a major incident?
Question116: Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?
Question117: The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is referred to
as what?
Question118: Which CSI step would defining metrics be appropriate for?
Question119: Which process would maintain policies, standards and models for service transition activities and
processes?
Question120: An incident is proving difficult to resolve. A technician informs their manager that more resource is needed
to restore the service.
What has taken place?
Question121: Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and
processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers?
Question122: Which is a reason why incident management interfaces with service level management?
Question123: Which process has the following objective "Establish new or changed services into supported
environments within the predicted cost, time and resource estimates"?
Question124: Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that
involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
Question125: Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on?
1. Design of the service metrics
2. Business continuity strategy
3. Business impact analysis (BIA)
4. Risk assessment
Question126: What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?
Question127: Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction?
Question128: Which processes are responsible for the regular review of underpinning contracts?
Question129: Which ITIL process is used to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible?
Question130: Which one of the following does service metrics measure?
Question131: Which is a recommended response type to respond to either a threat or an opportunity?
Question132: What is the BEST definition of a definitive media library?
Question133: Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability?
Question134: A configuration model can be used to help
(1) Assess the impact and cause of incidents and problems
(2) Assess the impact of proposed changes
(3) Plan and design new or changed services
(4) Plan technology refresh and software upgrades
Question135: Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?
Question136: Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?
1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary
2. Check that the user is satisfied with the outcome
Question137: Which is an objective of the design coordination process?
Question138: The value created by a service is defined in terms of business outcomes, customer preferences, and
which other element?
Question139: How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
Question140: How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?
Question141: Which of the following is not a service desk type recognized in the service operation volume of ITIL?
Question142: Which one of the following would NOT involve event management?
Question143: Which function is responsible for the closure of an incident record?
Question144: Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be gathered
and analyzed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question "Did we get there?"
Question145: Which one of the following activities are carried out during the "Where do we want to be?" step of the
continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
Question146: Where should the following information be stored?
1. The experience of staff
2. Records of user behaviour
3. Supplier's abilities and requirements
4. User skill levels
Question147: What is a RACI model used for?
Question148: What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and
deliverables from service management?
Question149: Remediation planning is a key part of which process?
Question150: Which statements about best practice is MOST correct?
Question151: One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes?
Question152: Which is the CORRECT list of metrics to support CSI activities?
Question153: Which of the following is the best definition of service management?
Question154: What is NOT within the scope of service catalogue management?
Question155: Which statement BEST describes a service request?
Question156: How should entries in the CSI register be categorized?
Question157: Which capacity management sub-process focuses on the management, control and prediction of the end-
to-end performance?
Question158: Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
Question159: Identity and Rights are two major concepts involved in which one of the following processes?
Question160: Where should all master copies of controlled software and documentation be stored?
Question161: Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?
Question162: Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
Question163: Which of the following are objectives of Service Design?
(1) Design Services to satisfy business objectives.
(2) Identify and manage risk.
(3) Design effective and efficient processes
(4) Design a secure and resilient IT infrastructure.
Question164: Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management?
1. Customers
2. Users
3. Suppliers
Question165: Which is NOT a purpose of a Product Description?
Question166: Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?
Question167: Which of the following would commonly be in a contract underpinning an IT service?
(1) Marketing information
(2) Contract description and scope
(3) Responsibilities and dependencies
Question168: What is the BEST definition of an internal service?
Question169: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Question170: What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support continual service
improvement (CSI)?
Question171: Which are phases of the release and deployment process?
1. Release build and test
2. Review and close
3. Categorize and record
4. Change authorization and schedule
Question172: A Service design package (SDP) would normally be produced for which of the following?
1. A new IT service
2. A major change to an IT service
3. An emergency change to an IT service
4. An IT service retirement
Question173: Which process would seek to understand levels of customer satisfaction and communicate what action
plans have been put in place to deal with dissatisfaction?
Question174: The definitive media library is the responsibility of:
Question175: Which is an example of improving service utility using service management automation?
Question176: Which role is responsible for sponsoring, designing and change managing a process and its metrics?
Question177: Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact?
Question178: Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
Question179: What should a release policy include?
Question180: Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of underpinning contracts?
Question181: Which one of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?
Question182: ITSM concepts are often described in the context of only one of these type.
Type I, type II and type III
Question183: Which of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?
Question184: Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of
the service lifecycle?
Question185: As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which of the
following service provider types?
(1) An internal service provider embedded within a business unit
(2) An internal service provider that provides shared IT services
(3) An external service provider
Question186: Which of the following identifies the purpose of service transition planning and support?
Question187: Which of the following activities are performed by a desk?
1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes
Question188: When should tests for a new service be designed?
Question189: Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
Question190: Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
Question191: What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?
Question192: At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be
defined?
Question193: Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis?
Question194: Implementation of IT1L service management requires the preparation and planning of the effective and
efficient use of "the four Ps." What are these four Ps?
Question195: When can a known error record be raised?
1. At any time it would be useful to do so
2. After a workaround has been found
Question196: Which reason describes why ITIL is so successful?
Question197: The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
Question198: Event management, problem management, access management and request fulfillment are part of which
stage of the service lifecycle?
Question199: Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?
Question200: Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the following
items need to be identified?
Question201: Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management?
Question202: "Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in
the form of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?
Question203: Which statement about IT service-management is CORRECT?
Question204: Access management is responsible for executing the policies that are defined in which process?
Question205: Which processes ensure the targets in the underpinning contracts are appropriate?
Question206: Where are the details of core and enhancing service provided?
Question207: Which of the following could BEST be described as "A decision support and planning tool that projects the
likely consequences of a business action"?
Question208: Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
Question209: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Question210: What BEST defines roles and responsibilities in relation to process and activities?
Question211: Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
Question212: Which of the following is NOT defined as part of every process?
Question213: Which stage of the service lifecycle has the purpose of looking for ways to improve process efficiency and
cost effectiveness?
Question214: In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk.
It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:
Question215: Which is NOT a service desk type described in the ITIL service operation guidance?
Question216: What is the definition of a service improvement plan (SIP)?
Question217: How are groups, teams, departments and divisions classified?
Question218: Which of the following questions does the guidance in service strategy help to answer?
(1) What services should we offer and to whom?
(2) How do we differentiate ourselves from competing alternatives?
(3) How do we create value for our customers?
Question219: Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that
cannot be prevented?
Question220: Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?
1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience
Question221: What are the two MAJOR activities in problem management?
Question222: What can be used to help determine the impact level of a problem?
Question223: Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of release and deployment management?
Question224: Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?
Question225: "Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose of which
part of the Service Lifecycle?
Question226: What are customers of an IT service provider who purchase services in terms of a legally binding contract
known as?
Question227: Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing service transition?
1. Better reuse and sharing of assets across projects and resources
2. Reduced cost to design new services
3. Result in higher volume of successful changes
Question228: What BEST describes the value of continual service improvement to the business?
Question229: Who is responsible for defining metrics for change management?
Question230: What are sources of best practice?
Question231: Which one of the following activities does application management perform?
Question232: Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
Question233: Which is NOT within the scope of service transition?
Question234: In which of the following should details of a workaround be documented?
Question235: Why is ITIL successful?
Question236: Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according to the
agreed and documented process?
Question237: Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part of which
process?
Question238: Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what
services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
Question239: What BEST describes the value of service operation to the business?
Question240: Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and
Deployment?
Question241: Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?
Question242: How is a service delivered between departments of same organization classified?
Question243: Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?
Question244: What is IT Governance concerned with?
Question245: Which is an outcome of service design?
Question246: Which describes a proactive trigger for problem management?
Question247: Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?
Question248: Which stage of service lifecycle has the purpose of aligning IT services with the changing business needs
by identifying improvements to IT services?
Question249: What are the categories of events described in the ITIL service operation book?
Question250: Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?
Question251: The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?
Question252: What does the continual service improvement (CSI) approach enable a business to achieve?
Question253: The Supplier Management process includes:
(1) Service Design activities, to ensure that contracts will be able to support the service requirements
(2) Service Operation activities, to monitor and report supplier achievements
(3) Continual Improvement activities, to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed the needs of the
business
Question254: What does the term "Wisdom" represent within the Data-to-Information-to-Knowledge-to-Wisdom (DIKW)?
Question255: Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management?
Question256: Which of the following does the Availability Management process include?
(1) Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets
(2) Monitoring and reporting actual availability
(3) Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goals
Question257: How does Problem Management work with Change Management?
Question258: The multi-level SLA' is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this type of
SLA?
Question259: Where are the details of core and enhancing services provided?
Question260: In service design, which term describes services, technologies and tools?
Question261: Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all
services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
Question262: Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
Question263: With which process is problem management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?
Question264: Which statement BEST describes the stakeholders in service management?
Question265: Which of the following is NOT an objective of the operations management function?
Question266: Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?
(1) Known Error Data
(2) Change Schedules
(3) Service Knowledge Management System
(4) The output from monitoring tools
Question267: Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the
implementation of a new service?
Question268: Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?
Question269: Access management is responsible for implementing policies defined in which process?
Question270: Which document shows a detailed analysis of business impact and benefits?
Question271: What is the ITIL guidance relating to the closure of resolved incidents?
Question272: Which statement is CORRECT?
Question273: What BEST describes the value of service transition to the business?
Question274: Which statement about the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is CORRECT
Question275: Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?
Question276: Which one of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?
Question277: Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?
Question278: Which one of the following is an objective of release and deployment management?
Question279: In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on 'Stability', what might the likely outcome be in
terms of responsiveness to customer needs?
Question280: Which of the following would NOT be contained in a release policy?
Question281: The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?
Question282: What is the CORRECT definition of service management?
Question283: Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on the relationships between
components of the IT infrastructure?
Question284: What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the
normal change process?
Question285: Which areas of service management can benefit from automation?
1. Design and modeling
2. Reporting
3. Pattern recognition and analysis
4. Detection and monitoring
Question286: Which is the correct combination of items that makes up an IT service?
Question287: Effective Service Transition can significantly improve a service provider's ability to handle high volumes of
what?
Question288: Which of the following is NOT a recognized example of a service provider type within the ITIL framework?
Question289: Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
Question290: What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?
Question291: Third parties responsible for supplying goods or services that are required to deliver IT services is a
description of which stakeholder?
Question292: Which of the following are aspects of Service Design?
(1) Architectures
(2) Technology
(3) Service Management processes
(4) Metrics
Question293: Which statement about the known error database (KEDB) is CORRECT?
Question294: Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager?
1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance
2. Identifying improvement opportunities
3. Appointing people to required roles
Question295: Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business
by?
Question296: Which tool helps with defining accountability and responsibility within processes?
Question297: Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
Question298: The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of which level of understanding
within knowledge management?
Question299: Which of the following provides the PRIMARY source of guidance on what needs to be protected by
information security management?
Question300: Which process is responsible to provide and maintain accurate information on all services that are being
transitioned or have been transitioned to the live environment?
Question301: Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
(1) How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
(2) What services to offer and to whom?
(3) What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
Question302: Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
Question303: Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
Question304: Which of the following would be most useful in helping to implement a workaround as quickly as possible?
Question305: Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
Question306: Which process analyses services that are no longer viable and when they should be retired?
Question307: Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
Question308: In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
Question309: Which of the following is the BEST definition of a Risk?
Question310: Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?
1. Enabling
2. Core
3. Enhancing
4. Computer
Question311: Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?
Question312: Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?
1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes
Question313: How is a service delivered between departments of the same organization classified?
Question314: Which of the following is the correct definition of an outcome?
Question315: Which of the following is an example of proactive problem management?
Question316: Which process would ensure that utility and warranty requirements are properly addressed in service
designs?
Question317: What takes place in the "Did we get there?" step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
Question318: Which of the following BEST describes a problem?
Question319: Order the following continual service improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correct sequence in
alignment with the plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model.
(1) Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives.
(2) Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved.
(3) Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI.
(4) Decision on implementation of further enhancement.
Question320: Which BEST describes a situation in which the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is used?
Question321: Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient
use of:
Question322: Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?
Question323: Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?